Prove that the infinite intersection of Rn=[0,
1
n
]×[0,
1
2n
] equals (0,0)I understand that Rn is a subset of Rn−1 due to the Archimedean Property, however I don't understand why the intersection is (0,0).
n
]×[0,
1
2n
] equals (0,0)I understand that Rn is a subset of Rn−1 due to the Archimedean Property, however I don't understand why the intersection is (0,0).
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